Independent revision built for the Bristol first- and second-year Economics, Accounting & Finance syllabi. Not affiliated with or endorsed by the University of Bristol.

Asset Trading & Fixed-Income Valuation

Why a firm's investment decisions are settled in the bond market: replication, the Law of One Price, where NPV actually comes from, and how bond prices turn into a yield curve.

What This Module Is Really About

Framing the year

Corporate finance decisions are not made in a boardroom vacuum — they are disciplined by what investors are already doing in asset markets. That sentence is the spine of the whole unit, and Week 1 is where it gets its first proper demonstration. A firm deciding whether to build a factory is, whether it realises it or not, competing with every bond a pension fund could buy instead. If the firm cannot beat what the market already offers, it should not be spending the money.

The machinery that makes this precise turns out to be simpler than the machinery you met in first-year corporate finance, and it comes in three steps. First, work out what an asset is worth by finding other traded assets that deliver exactly the same future cash. Second, notice that a firm's internal project can be valued the same way. Third — and only at the end — convert prices into interest rates, because that is how practitioners talk, not because the rates were doing any work.

The order matters. Nearly every finance course starts with a discount rate and asks you to accept it. This one earns the discount rate from prices you can observe, which means that by the time you write down a present-value formula you will know exactly where every number in it came from and what would have to be true for it to be wrong.

Why start with bonds? Bonds promise fixed amounts on fixed dates. That removes risk from the problem and lets you see the valuation logic on its own. Every later topic — equities, options, the cost of capital — adds risk back onto this skeleton. Get the skeleton wrong and nothing built on it stands up.

What you should be able to do by the end of the week

Price by replication

Given a set of zero-coupon bond prices, build the portfolio that reproduces any fixed payoff stream and read off its value.

Decide on a project

Apply the same construction to an internal project, and say precisely why a positive NPV is worth having.

Move between prices and rates

Convert zero prices into annualised yields and back, and know what a yield curve is and is not telling you.

The Financial System: Who Trades, and What

Core concept

Before any valuation, it helps to be concrete about who is in the room. At any moment some economic actors are holding more cash than they currently want to spend, and others want to spend more than they currently hold. The financial system exists to move purchasing power between the two, across time.

Surplus unit
Currently has cash it does not need to spend, and would like to convert it into a claim on cash later. A household saving for retirement; a pension fund collecting contributions.
Deficit unit
Wants to spend now and repay later. A firm building a plant; a government funding expenditure ahead of tax receipts.

The two sides could in principle find each other directly, but searching is expensive and the terms each wants rarely match. So intermediaries appear. A broker matches buyers with sellers and takes a fee without holding the asset itself. Other intermediaries take the asset onto their own books, transforming its size, its maturity or its risk before passing a differently shaped claim to the saver. Alongside the general public sit specialist investors — funds and institutions who trade in size, watch prices constantly, and whose activity is the reason market prices mean anything at all.

Figure 1 — surplus units, deficit units and the intermediaries between them

The object being traded

A bond is a transferable promise to pay stated amounts on stated dates. That is the whole definition, and almost everything in fixed income is a variation on it. What makes bonds the natural starting point for a finance course is that the promise is fixed in advance: you do not have to forecast anything to know what the holder is owed.

Whether the holder actually receives it is a separate question. Default risk is the possibility that the issuer fails to honour the promise. Bonds issued by a sovereign government in its own currency are conventionally treated as free of default risk, because the state can raise the money to pay. Corporate bonds carry real default risk, and their prices reflect it — which is exactly why we set them aside this week and work only with default-free promises.

Cash is a bond too. Treat money held today as an asset that pays its face amount immediately, at date zero. That sounds like a technicality, but it lets cash sit in the same table as every other asset and be handled by the same arithmetic. Every portfolio in this unit can hold it.

One further point is easy to skim past and worth dwelling on. A bond is not an object — it is a relationship between two parties, one of whom owes and one of whom is owed. The certificate is just the evidence. When the bond changes hands, the debt does not disappear; the identity of the creditor changes while the debtor stays put. Holding that picture in mind makes the trading mechanics in the final section much easier to follow.

Markets: Spot, Forward, Primary, Secondary

Core concept

A trade is an exchange of ownership for payment. In a spot trade, agreement and settlement happen together — you pay now and the asset is yours now. In a forward trade, the two parties agree today on a price and a quantity, but the exchange itself happens on a specified later date. The distinction matters because a forward agreement is itself a promise, and therefore itself something that can be valued.

The price is what the buyer gives up to obtain ownership. When an asset trades in a competitive market, its price aggregates the views of everyone who could have traded it and chose to or chose not to. That is the sense in which a market price is informative: it is not one person's opinion but the price at which the marginal buyer and marginal seller were both content.

Primary market
The issuer sells the asset for the first time. Cash flows from investor to issuer, and the credit relationship is created here.
Secondary market
Existing holders trade with each other. The issuer receives nothing and their obligation is unchanged — only the identity of the creditor moves.

Secondary trading is what makes primary issuance possible. An investor who knows they can sell a thirty-year bond next Tuesday if circumstances change will accept a lower yield today than one who must hold it to maturity. Liquidity in the secondary market is therefore paid for by the issuer, in the form of a better price at issue.

Long and short

An investor holding an asset has a long position: they own the future inflows. An investor who has sold an asset they do not own, and must therefore deliver those payments, has a short position: the same cash flows, with the sign reversed. A short position is not merely the absence of a long one — it is an active obligation, and it is exactly as real as ownership.

Figure 2 — a long position and a short position in the same bond
The issuer is short its own bond. When a firm issues a bond it takes in cash today and owes payments later — precisely the cash-flow profile of a short position. Issuing and short-selling differ in how the position was acquired and how long it is typically held, but the balance-sheet shape is identical. This is why replication arguments can talk about "selling" a portfolio without worrying about who originally issued it.

Short-Selling: Borrowing in Order to Sell

Where intuition slips

Suppose you are convinced an asset is about to fall in price, and you do not own any. You would like to sell it now and buy it back cheaper. To do that you must first get hold of one, and the mechanism is a borrowing contract.

Two investors are involved. The lender owns a unit of the asset and intends to keep holding it — they have no plans to sell in the near term. The borrower takes temporary possession, with a contractual obligation to return an identical unit at an agreed later date, plus a fee.

Figure 3 — short-selling: borrow, sell, buy back, return

What the lender gives up, and what they do not

During the borrowing period the lender does not hold the asset, so on paper their long position has gone. But the contract is written so that they are economically unaffected: they are owed an identical unit back, and any payments the asset makes in the interim are passed through to them by the borrower. Their exposure to the asset's price is unchanged. In return for a position they were not using anyway, they collect a fee.

The borrower's position is the mirror image. Having sold the borrowed unit, they hold cash and owe an asset. If the price falls, buying it back costs less than they received and the difference is theirs. If the price rises, they must still return the unit and the loss is real and uncapped — there is no ceiling on how far a price can rise.

Collateral is what makes this work. The lender is exposed to the borrower simply disappearing. So the borrower posts collateral, typically cash or high-quality securities worth somewhat more than the asset, marked to market as the price moves. Without collateral, securities lending would require the lender to trust the borrower's solvency for the whole period — and it would not happen at the scale it does.

Two things are worth carrying forward. First, short-selling is what lets an investor hold a negative quantity of an asset, and every replication argument in this unit relies on being able to do that. Second, the practice is not exotic: it is a routine, collateralised, fee-bearing transaction, and it is what allows prices to reflect pessimism as well as optimism.

Bond Anatomy

Core technique

To value bonds we need a shared vocabulary for their shapes. Time runs in periods. Period 1 runs from date 0 to date 1, period 2 from date 1 to date 2, and so on — dates are instants, periods are the gaps between them. Payments land on dates.

A coupon bond pays a fixed amount at the end of each period until maturity, and returns its face value (or par value) alongside the final coupon. The coupon rate expresses the periodic payment as a percentage of face: a £1,000 bond with a 7% annual coupon pays £70 a year. Note carefully that the coupon rate is a feature of the contract, fixed at issue and never changing. It is not a return, and it will generally differ from anything the market is currently offering.

3-year, £1,000 face, 7% annual coupon  →  payoffs of 70, 70, 1070 at dates 1, 2, 3
Figure 4 — a three-year coupon bond, and what par, discount and premium mean

Par, discount, premium

Compare a bond's price to its face value. Trading at par means price equals face. A discount bond trades below face; a premium bond above. The reason is always the same: the coupon rate was fixed at issue, market conditions have moved since, and the price adjusts to compensate. A generous coupon relative to what is currently available commands a premium; a stingy one sells at a discount.

Zero-coupon bond
Pays nothing until maturity, then a single amount. Necessarily trades below face. These are the building blocks of everything that follows.
Annuity and perpetuity
An annuity pays a fixed amount for a fixed number of periods and then stops. A perpetuity never stops. At a flat rate r, a perpetuity paying C is worth C/r.

The zero-coupon bond deserves special attention, because the entire valuation method in this week rests on it. One price, one payment, one date — nothing else. Give me a zero for every date at which some asset pays, and I can assemble that asset out of zeros. That is the whole trick, and the next section does it.

A coupon bond is a bundle. A 3-year coupon bond is not one asset with a complicated payoff; it is three separate dated claims travelling under one certificate. Once you see it that way the pricing writes itself, because each dated claim has an observable price of its own.

Pricing a Bond by Replication

Core technique

Here is the central move of the week. We want the fair price of a coupon bond. Instead of discounting anything, we build a portfolio of other traded bonds that pays exactly what our bond pays, on exactly the same dates. If two things deliver identical cash, nobody can prefer one to the other, so they must cost the same. The portfolio's price is observable. Therefore so is our bond's.

Take three default-free zero-coupon bonds, one maturing at each of the next three dates, each with a face value of £100. Their market prices are given — they are the outcome of competitive trading, and we take them as accurate.

AssetPrice at date 0Date 1Date 2Date 3
Z1(96.30)100——
Z2(91.20)—100—
Z3(85.60)——100
Bond B(?)70701,070

Prices are shown in brackets to mark them as outflows to the buyer. Bond B is our 3-year, £1,000 face, 7% coupon bond.

Finding the replicating portfolio

Because each zero pays on one date only, the portfolio can be found date by date — there is nothing to solve simultaneously. Bond B pays £70 at date 1 and one Z1 pays £100, so we need 70/100 = 0.7 units of it. The same reasoning gives 0.7 units of Z2. At date 3 bond B pays £1,070, so we need 1,070/100 = 10.7 units of Z3.

Portfolio Q = 0.7 Z1  +  0.7 Z2  +  10.7 Z3
Figure 5 — building bond B out of zero-coupon bonds, one date at a time

The portfolio's market value is price times quantity, summed:

VQ = 96.30 × 0.7  +  91.20 × 0.7  +  85.60 × 10.7 = 67.41 + 63.84 + 915.92 = £1,047.17

So bond B must be priced at £1,047.17. Note that this sits above the £1,000 face value: B is a premium bond, because its 7% coupon is generous relative to what the zero prices imply. We will confirm that interpretation once we have the rates, in From Prices to Interest Rates below.

The Law of One Price. If a portfolio of traded assets reproduces the payoffs of asset A, then A's price must equal that portfolio's market value. Nothing about preferences, attitudes to risk, or forecasts enters the argument. It rests only on the claim that investors will not pay more for a set of cash flows than the cost of buying the identical set elsewhere.

Notice what did not happen here. We never chose a discount rate, never formed a view about the future, and never needed to know who was buying. The price came entirely from other prices. That is a much stronger foundation than a discount rate someone handed you, and it is the reason this construction comes first.

Arbitrage Is What Enforces It

Why the rule holds

The Law of One Price is not a convention that markets have politely agreed to follow. It is enforced, and the enforcement mechanism is that anyone violating it is offering a profit that costs nothing to take.

Suppose bond B were quoted at £1,020 while the replicating portfolio still costs £1,047.17. B is cheap relative to its own ingredients. A trader does two things at once: buy B for £1,020, and short-sell portfolio Q for £1,047.17 — borrowing 0.7, 0.7 and 10.7 units of the three zeros from a willing lender and selling them.

Figure 6 — the arbitrage: a profit at date 0 and nothing owed thereafter

At date 0 the trader has taken in £1,047.17 and paid out £1,020, pocketing £27.17. At every date afterwards, nothing happens to them. The long position in B pays £70, £70 and £1,070; the short position in Q owes exactly £70, £70 and £1,070. Every future date nets to zero by construction — that is what replication means.

Cash in at date 0:  £1,047.17 − £1,020 = £27.17
Net cash at dates 1, 2 and 3:  zero, always

A positive amount today and nothing owed ever again is not a clever trade — it is an error in the price. Traders pile in, buying B and selling the zeros, which pushes B's price up and the zeros' prices down until the gap closes. If the mispricing ran the other way, with B above £1,047.17, the whole strategy reverses: sell B, buy Q, and collect the difference.

A profit that costs nothing does not survive contact with a market. In practice the profit is eaten into by borrowing fees, bid-ask spreads and the capital tied up in collateral, which is why small deviations persist. But the direction of the pressure is never in doubt, and it is the reason we can treat the replication price as the price rather than as one estimate among many.

From Bond to Project: Where NPV Comes From

Core technique

Now change the question. Your firm's engineers have developed a project nobody else can copy. It costs money today and produces cash at future dates. Should the firm do it?

The project is not traded, so it has no market price. But its payoffs can still be replicated by traded bonds, and that is all the argument needs. Suppose the project costs £1,550 today and delivers £400, £600 and £800 at dates 1, 2 and 3.

AssetPrice at date 0Date 1Date 2Date 3
Project P(1,550)400600800
Z1(96.30)100——
Z2(91.20)—100—
Z3(85.60)——100

Replicate date by date exactly as before: 4 units of Z1, 6 of Z2, 8 of Z3.

VQ = 96.30 × 4  +  91.20 × 6  +  85.60 × 8 = 385.20 + 547.20 + 684.80 = £1,617.20

An outside investor who wanted this exact stream of cash would have to pay £1,617.20 for it in the bond market. Your firm can manufacture it for £1,550. The difference is the net present value:

NPV = 1,617.20 − 1,550 = +£67.20
Figure 7 — the project against its replicating portfolio: NPV is the gap

Why the firm should care, concretely

The £67.20 is not a notional accounting gain. The firm can realise it in cash today. Adopt the project, then issue 4, 6 and 8 units of the three zeros against it, raising £1,617.20 immediately. Spend £1,550 building the project. The remaining £67.20 is simply banked. At each future date the project throws off precisely the amount needed to honour the bonds the firm sold — £400, £600, £800 — so the firm is never out of pocket again.

Run the same logic with a cost of £1,700 and NPV is −£82.80. Building it would be strictly worse than spending £1,617.20 on the replicating bonds and pocketing the difference, so the firm destroys £82.80 of value by proceeding.

NPV is not a management convention. It is what competitive asset markets force on the firm. A firm that ignores NPV is not being unorthodox; it is passing up cash it could have had, or burning cash it need not have spent, and the amounts are exactly computable from prices anyone can observe.

Bond and project, side by side

The two calculations were identical in structure and differ in one respect only. For the bond, the cost of acquiring the payoffs is its market price, so a gap between price and replication value is a mispricing that arbitrageurs will close. For the project, the cost is the implementation cost, and the gap is not an arbitrage at all — nobody outside the firm can exploit it, because nobody outside the firm can build the project. The gap is the return on whatever made the firm capable of it in the first place.

From Prices to Interest Rates

Core technique

Everything so far has been done in payoffs and prices. No interest rate has appeared, and none was needed. But practitioners quote rates, not zero prices, so we need the translation — and the two languages carry identical information.

One period

Buying Z1 means paying £96.30 today to receive £100 in a year. The ratio of what you get out to what you put in is the growth factor:

G1 = 100 / 96.30 = 1.03842

Subtract one and you have the growth rate: r1 = 3.842%. Equivalently, treat the £96.30 as a loan principal and the £3.70 difference as interest paid on it — 3.842% of £96.30 is £3.70. A bank offering a one-year deposit at 3.842% and the bond market offering Z1 at £96.30 are making the same offer, and arbitrage keeps them aligned.

More than one period

Over two years, Z2 turns £91.20 into £100, a total growth factor of 1.09649. That is growth over the whole two years, which makes it useless for comparing against a one-year investment. So we annualise: we ask what constant rate, applied twice, produces the same result.

(1 + r2)2 × 91.20 = 100   ⟹   1 + r2 = √(100/91.20)   ⟹   r2 = 4.713%

The same reasoning with a cube root gives r3 = 5.319%. Compounding is doing real work here: over two years the borrower pays interest on the principal and then interest on the first year's interest as well, and it is the sum of those that makes up the £8.80 gap between £91.20 and £100.

Figure 8 — from a zero price to an annualised yield
The discount factor is the zero price. With face values of £100, the price of Zt divided by 100 is the date-t discount factor: 0.9630, 0.9120, 0.8560. The yields are a re-encoding of exactly these three numbers. Neither contains information the other lacks.

The yield curve

The sequence r1, r2, r3, … is the yield curve, or term structure of interest rates. Ours runs 3.842%, 4.713%, 5.319% — a rising curve, which is the most common shape. It can also be flat, falling, humped, or inverted. A curve is a snapshot of the required return for each horizon at one instant, and it moves every day.

The interactive below is not a stylised drawing. It is the Bank of England's estimated UK nominal spot curve for every trading day from June to December 2022 — a period that contains one of the most violent episodes in the history of the gilt market.

Figure 9 — Interactive · the UK yield curve, June to December 2022
Trading day

Source: Bank of England yield curve estimates, UK nominal spot curve, 2022.

Drag the slider through late September. On 22 September the 30-year rate sits at 3.72%. Over the following three trading days it climbs to 4.85%, as leveraged pension strategies were forced to sell exactly the assets everyone else was selling. Then on 28 September, when the Bank announced emergency gilt purchases, the 30-year rate fell back to 3.72% in a single day — a move of 113 basis points, and the curve inverted, with the 1-year rate at 4.03% sitting above it.

What an inverted curve is saying. When short rates exceed long rates, the market is pricing near-term tightness it does not expect to last. Inversions have a long-standing empirical association with subsequent recessions, though the relationship is a regularity rather than a mechanism — and the inversion here was produced by an intervention in the long end, not by a forecast about 2023.

Discounting, Present Value and Yield to Maturity

Synthesis

We can now write the familiar present-value formula and know exactly why it is true. The date-t discount factor is (1 + rt)−t, and the present value of a stream of payoffs is the sum of each payoff scaled by its own factor:

PV = Σt  dt  /  (1 + rt)t

Apply it to bond B: 70/1.03842 + 70/1.04713² + 1070/1.05319³ = £1,047.17. The same answer replication gave, because it is the same calculation wearing different clothes. This is worth pausing on. The PV formula is usually presented as a definition to be accepted. It is not — it is a restatement of "buy the identical cash flows from the bond market and see what they cost", and it inherits all of arbitrage's force.

There is one rate per date, not one rate per project. The formula uses r1 for date-1 money, r2 for date-2 money, and so on. Investors value different dates differently, and a single discount rate applied to every date quietly assumes they do not.

Yield to maturity

In practice people often want one number for an asset rather than a whole curve. So we ask a hypothetical question: if the yield curve were flat, what single rate would justify the price we actually observe? That rate is the yield to maturity.

Find i such that   p = Σt  dt  /  (1 + i)t

For bond B, priced at £1,047.17, the answer is i = 5.259%. Compare that with the zero yields of 3.842%, 4.713% and 5.319%: the YTM sits inside the range, below the highest and above the lowest. That is no accident. YTM is a payoff-weighted average of the zero yields, and because most of B's money arrives at date 3, its YTM sits close to r3.

Figure 10 — yield to maturity as the flat rate that reproduces the price

Two consequences follow. First, when the curve is not flat, two correctly priced bonds will generally have different YTMs, because they have different payoff timings and therefore different exposure to each date. A YTM is a property of an asset, not of the market. Second, YTM is nonetheless enormously useful in practice, because it can be computed from a single bond's price and payoffs without estimating a zero curve at all — and estimating a zero curve from noisy market data is genuinely hard.

The internal rate of return

Run the identical calculation on a payoff stream that is not a traded asset, and the resulting rate is the internal rate of return. For project P at a cost of £1,550, the IRR is 7.030%. Since that exceeds every rate on the yield curve, the project beats the bond market at every horizon — which is another way of saying its NPV is positive.

IRR rarely solves in closed form, so in practice it is found numerically. The standard hand method is linear interpolation: compute NPV at two trial rates that bracket zero, then draw a straight line between them and read off where it crosses. For cash flows of £2,600, £1,800 and £1,200 against a cost of £5,000, NPV is +£62.37 at 6% and −£96.78 at 8%, giving an interpolated IRR of 6.784% against a true value of 6.770%.

Interpolation always overstates. The NPV curve is convex, so a straight line drawn between two points on it lies above the curve, and the crossing point comes out too high. The error grows with the width of the bracket: from 6% and 8% it is 0.014 percentage points, but from 5% and 15% the same cash flows give 6.980% — an error fifteen times larger. Bracket tightly.

Trading Mechanics in the Balance Sheet

Extension

This section goes beyond what the core valuation argument requires. It is here because "long" and "short" are words that are easy to nod along to and surprisingly easy to get wrong when the cash actually moves — and because seeing a short position built, maintained and closed on a balance sheet is what makes the replication arguments above feel concrete rather than algebraic.

Follow one bond through its life. Three parties hold positions that change as it is issued, traded on, borrowed and finally repaid. At each step, watch three things for each party: cash held, long positions, and short positions. Every transaction moves at least two of them, and the total across all parties always balances.

Figure 11 — Interactive · one bond, six events, three balance sheets
The pattern to take away. Acquiring a long position costs cash now and buys future inflows. Acquiring a short position raises cash now and creates future outflows. Liquidating either one reverses it. Whether a short was created by issuing the bond or by borrowing and selling it, the balance-sheet entries are the same shape — what differs is how long the position is typically held. An issuer's short usually runs to maturity; a short-seller's is closed as soon as the price move they were betting on arrives.

Why this matters for the rest of the unit

Every replication argument in this week assumed we could hold negative quantities of an asset — that "short 10.7 units of Z3" is a thing a trader can actually do. This section is where that assumption is cashed out. The arbitrage argument earlier, in Arbitrage Is What Enforces It, is not a thought experiment: it is a sequence of ordinary, collateralised transactions, and the profit at date 0 is real cash in a real account.

IRR in Practice: What the Formula Does, and Where It Misleads

Where marks are lost

Discounting, Present Value and Yield to Maturity used linear interpolation as a recipe. This section takes it apart — because the recipe hides a simple geometric idea, and because almost every way of getting an IRR question wrong is a misreading of what the number means rather than an arithmetic slip.

Why the formula works: two similar triangles

Take the two trial points from before. Point A sits at 6% with an NPV of +£62.37; point B sits at 8% with −£96.78. Join them with a straight line and call its zero crossing X. Everything follows from one property of straight lines: the same fraction of the total horizontal movement produces the same fraction of the total vertical movement.

Figure 12 — the interpolation formula is a statement about similar triangles

Drop a horizontal line from A. The vertical through X meets it at D; the vertical through B meets it at E. That gives a small triangle ADX and a large one AEB. Both have a right angle, and the angle at A belongs to both, so one is simply a scaled copy of the other — every side of the small one is the same fraction of its partner in the large one.

(r̂ − rL) / (rH − rL)  =  VL / (VL − VH)
fraction of the base  =  fraction of the height

Put the numbers in. The total fall from A to B is 62.37 − (−96.78) = 159.15, and the fall from A down to zero is just 62.37. So the small triangle covers 62.37/159.15 = 39.19% of the large one's height — and therefore 39.19% of its base too. The base is the full two percentage points from 6% to 8%, so the step right is 0.3919 × 2 = 0.784 percentage points, giving 6% + 0.784% = 6.784%.

Note where the denominator comes from. It is 159.15, not 62.37, because the line keeps falling past zero down to −96.78. Forgetting that the fall continues below the axis is the single most common slip in this calculation — and it always produces an estimate that is too large.

Three traps in the notation

L and H are sizes, not an order

rL is the lower rate, whichever you happened to try first. Try 8% then 6% and rL is still 6%. Write each NPV down next to the rate that produced it — mixing the two up is the commonest way this formula goes wrong.

The labels say nothing about sign

rL does not mean "the positive one". On a falling NPV profile the lower rate usually gives the higher NPV, but that is a consequence, not a definition.

Don't mix units

Work in decimals throughout, or percentages throughout. Mixing 0.06 with 8 is the kind of error that produces an answer like 0.68% and survives unnoticed.

The formula still works when both NPVs share a sign

Nothing in the derivation required the line to cross zero between the trial points. If it crosses outside them, the same formula extends the line until it does. That is extrapolation, and the fraction tells you it has happened.

TrialsNPVsFractionEstimateError
6% and 8%+62.37, −96.780.3926.784%+0.014
8% and 12%−96.78, −389.49−0.3316.677%−0.093
2% and 4%+409.91, +231.002.2916.582%−0.188

True IRR 6.770%. Errors in percentage points. The middle row extrapolates downwards, the last row upwards.

Read the fraction as a position within the interval. Between 0 and 1 means the crossing lies inside the bracket. Negative means it lies below both rates — which is what two negative NPVs give you. Greater than one means it lies above both, which is what two positive NPVs give. Both extrapolations here are worse than the bracketed estimate, and they get rapidly worse the further the line is extended. Finding one NPV of each sign remains the dependable starting point.

Two different errors, often confused

Exam papers frequently supply discount factors rounded to three decimal places. Using them changes the answer, and it is worth being clear that this is a separate error from the one interpolation itself introduces.

Rounding error
Three-decimal factors give NPVs of £61.80 and −£97.00 instead of £62.37 and −£96.78, moving the estimate from 6.784% to 6.778%. It comes from the inputs.
Interpolation error
A straight line replaces a curve. Even with exact inputs, 6.784% approximates a true 6.770%. It comes from the method, and no amount of precision removes it.
Show the factors you used. If you worked from a printed table, say so and quote to the precision the table gives. Reporting 6.78413% from three-decimal factors claims an accuracy the inputs cannot support.

What an IRR is not

Ask what 6.770% is actually the return on. Not on £5,000 for three years: by the end of year 1 you have had £2,600 back, so only part of the original stake is still at work. The IRR is the one rate that, applied each year to whatever is still tied up, runs the balance down to exactly zero on the final date — and that balance shrinks with every receipt. Four things it does not mean:

Not an arithmetic average

It is not the mean of three annual percentages. The receipts total £5,600, a cumulative undiscounted gain of 12% — and dividing that by three gives 4%, nowhere near the IRR.

Not an annual payout

It does not mean 6.77% of the original £5,000 arrives each year. Most of the £2,600 at date 1 is capital coming back, not return on capital.

Not a required return

The 6% was a trial rate, nothing more. What the project offers is separate from what an investor requires, which comes from what else their money could earn at the same level of risk.

Not a reinvestment promise

Computing the IRR assumes nothing about what happens to early receipts. But earning 6.77% compound on the whole £5,000 through to date 3 would require reinvesting them at 6.77%.

The relationship to the required return is the one that decides anything: NPV is positive exactly when the required return is below the IRR, and negative when it is above. That is the sense in which IRR and NPV give the same answer — for a project shaped like this one.

When IRR stops being a single number

Everything above relies on the NPV profile falling steadily as the rate rises, which it does when an outflow is followed only by inflows. Change the sign more than once and that guarantee disappears.

Consider a project that costs £8,400 today, returns £20,150 at date 1, and then requires £12,000 of decommissioning at date 2 — a mine or an oil field, where the clean-up bill arrives after the profits.

Figure 13 — two sign changes, two internal rates of return

The profile rises, peaks and falls, crossing zero twice: at 9.94% and again at 29.94%. Both satisfy the definition — both make NPV exactly zero — and there is no principled reason to prefer one. "The IRR is 9.94%" and "the IRR is 29.94%" are equally true and equally useless.

NPV never has this problem. Discount at the required return and read off a single number. When a project's cash flows change sign more than once, that is the only safe tool — and it is a good reason to treat NPV as the primary rule and IRR as the summary statistic, rather than the other way round.
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